Think of an example to show that the following statement is false?

If (An)-%26gt;0 then (1/(An))-%26gt;Infinity





(An) is supposed to be notation for a sequenceThink of an example to show that the following statement is false?
What if you take the zero sequence, where An=0 for all n?


Then there *is no* sequence 1/(An)! ... and so it cannot go anywhere.





The same should work for all sequences (An) that have 0 at any place - at that point, 1/(An) is undefined, and you lose your 1/(An) sequence ...